The Family Of God

Just as Jesus is busy with this justification of His ministry Jesus' family turns up and a man points this out to Jesus, whom states that those that do the will of God (listen to Christ in faith that He is the Son of God) are His family. This is not a rejection of His family, but rather that those gathered by also greatly desire to speak with Him - they being also concerned about their salvation, more so than Jesus' own family most likely were. Jesus in effect states that He has His priorities straight!

-- Click To Expand/Collapse Bible Verses -- Mat ch12:v46-50
Mat 12:46 While he yet talked to the people, behold, his mother and his brethren stood without, desiring to speak with him.
Mat 12:47 Then one said unto him, Behold, thy mother and thy brethren stand without, desiring to speak with thee.
Mat 12:48 But he answered and said unto him that told him, Who is my mother? and who are my brethren?
Mat 12:49 And he stretched forth his hand toward his disciples, and said, Behold my mother and my brethren!
Mat 12:50 For whosoever shall do the will of my Father which is in heaven, the same is my brother, and sister, and mother. (KJV)

Talk about bad timing!

This passage somewhat indicates that the will of the Father was for His disciples to listen to Jesus and to do the same work as Jesus rather than to strengthen the view that Jesus' bloodline was blessed. Jesus was teaching on the basis that Israel was not justified by its lineage, and that the kingdom of God was not rooted in genetics but only justified by faith. In this manner we indeed see that there is no difference between circumcision and uncircumcision - In Jesus the gentiles may place their trust, fulfilling the passage with which this scene opened.

So to wrap up, is there some axiomatic way to draw all these threads together? Clearly the root of the problem is the rejection of Christ and blasphemy of the redemptive work of God; The teaching is that the pharisees reject Christ because of their hearts, being filled with hypocrisy and the murmuring against the consistency of the commandments of God; that they and the prophets could not be fulfilled in the person of Jesus Christ because He was not doing it "in their way".

i) If Israel is approved by God, It will not be spoiled and divided by another

ii) If another comes and divides Israel by doing miracles as if by God then He is

A) doing the work of an enemy

B) doing the work of God.

if (A) or (B) are true then one part of Israel divided is at fault.

iii) God will not be seen to be weak if He is at work.

Thus, if (B) is true then God is strong and the "another" of (ii) gathers Israel toward Him (God) and the other former Israel is corrupt.

but if (A) is true then God will be shown to be strong because Israel is already approved by (i) and able to stand firm united in their religion by His previous works.

iv) Israel is still divided between Christ and antichrist.

which implies (B) because one part of Israel is at fault and corrupt. This has the result that;

Only the first and former Israel may be corrupt if Israel is still divided.

Also, we may affirm that even in Jesus day the evidence of the man healed to his right mind was evidence of a similar sort, being a case where the demons that "infested" Israel were shown to be under the authority of Christ and were not under the authority of the Israel (the pharisees' children) of the day. The corruption of the man's unclean spirit was equivocated to the corruption of Israel in an "acid-test". The healing of the man follows after a similar pattern as the religious health of the nation of Israel had.

i) If Israel is approved by God they may ALL stand strong against the "enemy" of God.

ii) If the enemy may spoil Israel of God's followers then Israel is;

A) corrupt and without the proper God because the enemy is stronger, or...

B) the spoil (the possessed man) is not approved by God

if one of (A) or (B) is true then either the man or Israel as a whole is at fault (we dont consider both yet*)

iii) God will not be seen to be weak when He is at work.

Thus if (B) is true God is not strong as the man is corrupted, He is a member of "physical" Israel which must therefore be corrupted also. If any such man may therefore be spoiled, all Israel is spoiled by a greater one than God.

but if (A) is true then not even all Israel can cast out the man's unclean spirit. God is shown to be weak because Israel is not approved at all.

But how can God be shown to be weak? We have a contradiction!

Clearly in the second case the god of Israel is no god at all - it is the enemy in the guise of God - the armour of salvation has escaped the people of god in that case. The god the second time is the "god of this world".

However, Christ has come and certainly redeemed His people. There is one in Israel with the approval of God - Jesus Christ Himself! Therefore the rejection of Christ as the perfect fulfillment of the work of the Holy Ghost promised through the prophets is in view here as was explained earlier. Blaspheming the Holy Ghost blasphemes God in all His works.

*there is the case the second time that both A and B are true, but as the man is also in Israel this is simply case (A).

Continue To Next Page

Return To Section Start

Return To Previous Page